🌾 INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) IBPS PO MAINS — INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🌾 INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) 🏦

📘 IBPS PO MAINS — INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 204

📅 TUESDAY, 20 OCTOBER 2026

🎯 TARGET: IBPS PO • Banking Officers • Banking Aspirants

📝 20 MCQs | 20 MARKS | 20 MINUTES

⚠️ Negative marking: 0.25 mark for each incorrect answer.

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SECTION 1 — ADVANCED MOCK TEST

PART A — CURRENT BANKING & FINANCIAL AWARENESS

Q1. According to the RBI’s result of the 7-day Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction held on 19 October 2026, what amount was allotted against the notified amount of ₹1 lakh crore:

A. ₹1,00,014 crore

B. ₹90,000 crore

C. ₹75,000 crore

D. ₹1,25,000 crore

E. ₹1,50,735 crore

Q2. Under SEBI’s Project Jagrook, investor-awareness messages are to be displayed by stock brokers on their:

A. Annual financial statements only

B. Trading applications and websites

C. Customers’ bank passbooks

D. Credit rating reports

E. Physical share certificates only

Q3. The SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2026, are scheduled to take effect from:

A. 1 January 2027

B. 1 February 2027

C. 1 April 2027

D. 1 July 2027

E. 1 October 2027

Q4. SEBI introduced the Credit Risk-o-Meter as an additional disclosure mechanism for:

A. Equity shares

B. Bank fixed deposits

C. Sovereign gold bonds

D. Debt securities

E. Insurance policies

Q5. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 reviewed ISIN-related provisions for:

A. Bank savings deposits

B. Insurance policies

C. Equity shares issued through public offers only

D. Sovereign gold bonds

E. Debt securities issued on a private-placement basis

Q6. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 provided an exemption from mandatory merchant banker appointment for certain listed issuers raising funds through:

A. Debt issued through private placement

B. Initial public offers of equity shares

C. Rights issues of equity shares only

D. Government Treasury Bills

E. Bank fixed deposits

Q7. SEBI’s circular dated 15 October 2026 reviewed the Closing Auction Session, market timings and:

A. Bank deposit insurance

B. Settlement methodology for derivatives contracts

C. MSME credit appraisal norms

D. Mutual fund expense ratios

E. Statutory liquidity requirements for banks

Q8. SEBI notified the Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, relating to which regulatory framework on 15 October 2026:

A. Portfolio Managers Regulations

B. Research Analysts Regulations

C. Alternative Investment Funds Regulations

D. Insurance Regulations

E. Banking Regulation Act

Q9. SEBI notified the Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, to which regulations on 15 October 2026:

A. Mutual Funds Regulations

B. Portfolio Managers Regulations

C. Vault Managers Regulations

D. Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations

E. Research Analysts Regulations

Q10. On 15 October 2026, SEBI notified the Second Amendment Regulations, 2026, relating to:

A. Portfolio Managers

B. Research Analysts

C. Mutual Funds

D. Alternative Investment Funds

E. Infrastructure Investment Trusts

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PART B — STATIC BANKING & APPLICATION

Q11. Under the DICGC deposit insurance framework, the maximum insured amount for a depositor in the same right and capacity in the same bank is:

A. ₹5 lakh, including principal and interest

B. ₹1 lakh, excluding interest

C. ₹2 lakh, including principal only

D. ₹10 lakh, excluding interest

E. ₹5 lakh for every branch separately

Q12. NABARD was established on:

A. 1 April 1980

B. 12 July 1982

C. 1 January 1985

D. 15 August 1982

E. 2 October 1981

Q13. Under the Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), a bank must maintain sufficient High-Quality Liquid Assets to cover projected net cash outflows over:

A. Seven calendar days

B. Fourteen calendar days

C. Thirty calendar days

D. Ninety calendar days

E. One financial year

Q14. A bank has eligible regulatory capital of ₹150 crore and risk-weighted assets of ₹1,250 crore. Its Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) is:

A. 8%

B. 10%

C. 11%

D. 12%

E. 15%

Q15. Under the standard RBI priority-sector lending framework, the overall target applicable to domestic commercial banks is generally:

A. 18% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base

B. 25% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base

C. 30% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base

D. 35% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base

E. 40% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base

Q16. The Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) primarily facilitates:

A. Financing of eligible MSME trade receivables

B. Deposit insurance for small businesses

C. Determination of the policy repo rate

D. Issuance of equity shares by banks

E. Automatic waiver of working-capital loans

Q17. Under RBI instructions, a cheque issued in India is ordinarily valid for presentation for how long from its date:

A. One month

B. Three months

C. Six months

D. Twelve months

E. Fifteen days

Q18. Under Basel III, the minimum prescribed Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is:

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. 125%

E. 150%

Q19. The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) used to identify a bank branch for electronic fund transfers contains:

A. 8 characters

B. 10 characters

C. 12 characters

D. 11 characters

E. 16 characters

Q20. A Letter of Credit issued by a bank in international trade primarily provides:

A. Automatic insurance against every commercial loss

B. A guarantee of profit to the exporter

C. Exemption from customs duties

D. An unconditional guarantee regardless of documents

E. A conditional bank undertaking to honour a complying presentation under its terms

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SECTION 2 — ANSWER KEY

Q1.A

Q2.B

Q3.C

Q4.D

Q5.E

Q6.A

Q7.B

Q8.C

Q9.D

Q10.E

Q11.A

Q12.B

Q13.C

Q14.D

Q15.E

Q16.A

Q17.B

Q18.C

Q19.D

Q20.E

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SECTION 3 — QUICK EXPLANATIONS

Q1. A — ₹1,00,014 crore

The RBI allotted ₹1,00,014 crore against a notified amount of ₹1,00,000 crore in the 7-day VRR auction on 19 October 2026. The total bids received were ₹1,50,735 crore.

Q2. B — Trading applications and websites

Project Jagrook promotes investor awareness through messages on stock brokers’ digital platforms.

Q3. C — 1 April 2027

SEBI specified 1 April 2027 as the effective date for the Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026.

Q4. D — Debt securities

The Credit Risk-o-Meter provides additional credit-risk disclosures relating to debt securities. It should not be confused with the mutual fund Risk-o-Meter.

Q5. E — Privately placed debt securities

The circular reviews ISIN-related provisions for debt securities issued on a private-placement basis.

Q6. A — Debt issued through private placement

SEBI provided an exemption from mandatory merchant banker appointment for certain listed issuers raising debt through private placement, subject to the applicable conditions.

Q7. B — Derivatives settlement methodology

SEBI’s 15 October circular covers the Closing Auction Session, market timings and settlement methodology for derivatives contracts.

Q8. C — Alternative Investment Funds Regulations

SEBI listed the Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, for Alternative Investment Funds on 15 October 2026.

Q9. D — Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations

SEBI notified the Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, to the LODR framework on 15 October 2026.

Q10. E — Infrastructure Investment Trusts

SEBI notified the Second Amendment Regulations, 2026, for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) on 15 October 2026.

Q11. A — ₹5 lakh

DICGC insurance covers up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, including principal and interest, in the same right and capacity. Deposits across branches of the same bank are aggregated.

Q12. B — 12 July 1982

NABARD was established on 12 July 1982 under the NABARD Act, 1981, to support agriculture and rural development.

Q13. C — Thirty calendar days

LCR measures short-term liquidity resilience by requiring sufficient high-quality liquid assets to cover projected net cash outflows over a 30-day stress period.

Q14. D — 12%

CRAR = Eligible regulatory capital ÷ Risk-weighted assets × 100.

= ₹150 crore ÷ ₹1,250 crore × 100 = 12%.

Q15. E — 40%

The standard overall priority-sector lending target for domestic commercial banks is generally 40% of ANBC or the applicable alternative base, subject to the relevant RBI directions.

Q16. A — Financing MSME trade receivables

TReDS facilitates the financing of eligible MSME trade receivables, helping businesses convert receivables into funds and improve working capital.

Q17. B — Three months

Cheques are ordinarily valid for presentation for three months from their date under the applicable RBI instructions.

Q18. C — 100%

NSFR promotes stable funding relative to the liquidity characteristics of a bank’s assets and off-balance-sheet exposures. The minimum prescribed ratio under Basel III is 100%.

Q19. D — 11 characters

The IFSC contains 11 characters: the first four identify the bank, the fifth is zero, and the last six identify the branch.

Q20. E — Conditional bank undertaking

A Letter of Credit provides a bank undertaking to honour a presentation that complies with its terms and conditions, including applicable documentary requirements.

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SECTION 4 — HIGH-VALUE EXAM TRAPS

🔹 VRR auction: Distinguish the notified amount, total bids received and actual allotment.

🔹 Credit Risk-o-Meter: Relates to additional credit-risk disclosures for debt securities; it is not the mutual fund Risk-o-Meter.

🔹 ISIN: Identifies a security; it is not a bank account number.

🔹 AIF, LODR and InvIT: Distinguish the regulatory framework and amendment number.

🔹 DICGC: ₹5 lakh is the aggregate ceiling per depositor per bank in the same right and capacity, not per branch.

🔹 LCR vs NSFR: LCR addresses short-term liquidity stress over 30 days; NSFR promotes stable funding over a longer horizon.

🔹 CRAR: Use risk-weighted assets as the denominator, not total deposits or total advances.

🔹 Priority-sector lending: The overall target of 40% is different from the agriculture sub-target.

🔹 TReDS: Facilitates receivables financing; it is not a deposit-insurance or equity-investment platform.

🔹 Letter of Credit: Payment depends on compliance with the credit’s terms, not merely on the existence of a trade transaction.

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SECTION 5 — CHECK YOUR SCORE

🏆 Maximum marks: 20

18–20: Excellent — strong command of banking awareness.

15–17.75: Very good — revise the concepts missed.

12–14.75: Good foundation — strengthen regulatory and conceptual knowledge.

Below 12: Revisit the explanations and attempt the mock again.

Scoring formula: Correct answers × 1 − incorrect answers × 0.25.

Unattempted questions carry zero marks.

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SECTION 6 — 60-SECOND RECALL

📌 RBI VRR allotment, 19 October: ₹1,00,014 crore

📌 Project Jagrook: Investor-awareness messages on broker apps and websites

📌 Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026: Effective 1 April 2027

📌 Credit Risk-o-Meter: Debt-security disclosures

📌 ISIN review: Privately placed debt securities

📌 DICGC insurance ceiling: ₹5 lakh

📌 NABARD establishment: 12 July 1982

📌 LCR: 30-day liquidity stress coverage

📌 CRAR: Capital ÷ risk-weighted assets × 100

📌 Priority-sector lending target: Generally 40%

📌 TReDS: Financing MSME trade receivables

📌 NSFR: Minimum 100%

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SECTION 7 — YOUR ACTION ZONE

✅ Attempt all 20 questions before checking the key.

✅ Calculate Q14 independently to reinforce CRAR.

✅ Classify errors as factual gaps, conceptual confusion or careless reading.

✅ Revise the relevant RBI and SEBI circulars.

✅ Reattempt the mock after 48 hours to test retention.

🎯 IBR Learning Principle: Understand the regulation, threshold, effective date and practical banking implication—not merely the answer.

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SECTION 8 — JOIN IBR PREMIUM

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• IBPS Prelims and PO Mains

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Mention the 90-day free-access offer only if it remains valid.

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SECTION 9 — JOIN IBR YOUTUBE

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