INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS PRELIMS INTELLIGENCE MINI MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 204

📅 20 OCTOBER 2026 | TUESDAY

🎯 TARGET: IBPS PO • IBPS Clerk/CSA • IBPS RRB

🧠 20 QUESTIONS | 20 MARKS | 15 MINUTES

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⚡ THE DAILY SPEED & ACCURACY CHALLENGE

Sharpen your calculation speed, logical reasoning and English proficiency with today's fresh practice set.

🎯 YOUR MISSION

Attempt all 20 questions in 15 minutes. Prioritise accuracy, avoid random guessing and review your mistakes after completing the test.

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🔢 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Q1. What is 25% of 640 plus 15% of 400:

A. 220

B. 210

C. 230

D. 240

E. 200

Q2. A sum of ₹10,000 is invested at 10% per annum, compounded annually. What is the compound interest earned after 2 years:

A. ₹2,000

B. ₹2,100

C. ₹2,200

D. ₹1,900

E. ₹2,400

Q3. The present ages of A and B are in the ratio 4:5. If their total age is 81 years, what is B's present age:

A. 36 years

B. 40 years

C. 45 years

D. 48 years

E. 50 years

Q4. A trader purchases an article for ₹1,200 and sells it for ₹1,380. What is the profit percentage:

A. 12%

B. 18%

C. 20%

D. 15%

E. 10%

Q5. Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours and Pipe B in 18 hours. If both pipes operate together at constant rates, how long will they take to fill the tank:

A. 6 hours

B. 8 hours

C. 7 hours

D. 9 hours

E. 7 hours 12 minutes

Q6. A invests ₹6,000 for 8 months and B invests ₹8,000 for 6 months in a business. If the total profit is shared in proportion to capital multiplied by time, what is their profit-sharing ratio:

A. 1:1

B. 2:3

C. 3:4

D. 4:3

E. 3:2

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🧠 REASONING ABILITY

Q7. One card is drawn at random from a standard deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability of drawing a king:

A. 1/4

B. 1/13

C. 1/26

D. 1/52

E. 4/13

Q8. Find the missing number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?:

A. 187

B. 189

C. 191

D. 193

E. 195

Q9. A person walks 5 metres east, turns left and walks 4 metres, turns left and walks 5 metres, and then turns right and walks 3 metres. How far and in which direction is the person from the starting point:

A. 5 metres north

B. 4 metres south

C. 3 metres east

D. 7 metres north

E. 7 metres south

Q10. In a class of 42 students, Meera ranks 17th from the top. What is her rank from the bottom:

A. 24th

B. 25th

C. 27th

D. 28th

E. 26th

Q11. If each letter in the word LOAN is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, what is the resulting code:

A. MPBO

B. MPAO

C. NQCP

D. KNZM

E. MPBN

Q12. Consider the inequality P ≥ Q > R = S ≤ T. Which conclusion or conclusions follow logically:

I. P > R

II. T > R

A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Only conclusion I follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Either conclusion I or II follows

Q13. Statements:

All auditors are employees.

Some employees are managers.

No manager is a trainee.

Conclusions:

I. Some employees are not trainees.

II. No auditor is a trainee.

Which conclusion or conclusions follow logically:

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Either conclusion I or II follows

Q14. A is the brother of B. B is the mother of C. How is A related to C:

A. Paternal uncle

B. Maternal grandfather

C. Brother

D. Maternal uncle

E. Cousin

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📖 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Q15. Choose the word nearest in meaning to “Prudent”:

A. Careless

B. Impulsive

C. Wasteful

D. Reckless

E. Wise

Q16. Choose the antonym of “Scarce”:

A. Rare

B. Limited

C. Abundant

D. Insufficient

E. Meagre

Q17. Choose the correct preposition: “All employees must comply ___ the bank's security instructions.”:

A. to

B. with

C. for

D. on

E. at

Q18. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:

A. Each of the applicants have submitted the form.

B. Each of the applicants were submitting the form.

C. Each of the applicants has submitted the form.

D. Each of the applicants are submitting the form.

E. Each of the applicants have been submit the form.

Q19. Choose the correct words to complete the sentence: “If the bank ___ the documents earlier, the loan ___ processed yesterday.”:

A. receives; will be

B. received; would be

C. has received; will have been

D. had received; would have been

E. would receive; had been

Q20. Choose the correctly spelt word:

A. Acommodation

B. Accomodation

C. Acommoddation

D. Accommadation

E. Accommodation

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✅ ANSWER KEY

Q1.A

Q2.B

Q3.C

Q4.D

Q5.E

Q6.A

Q7.B

Q8.C

Q9.D

Q10.E

Q11.A

Q12.B

Q13.A

Q14.D

Q15.E

Q16.C

Q17.B

Q18.C

Q19.D

Q20.E

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📘 QUICK SOLUTIONS & LEARNING POINTS

Q1. A — 220

25% of 640 = 160.

15% of 400 = 60.

Total = 160 + 60 = 220.

Q2. B — ₹2,100

Amount = ₹10,000 × (1.10)² = ₹12,100.

Compound interest = ₹12,100 − ₹10,000 = ₹2,100.

Q3. C — 45 years

Total ratio units = 4 + 5 = 9.

One unit = 81 ÷ 9 = 9 years.

B's age = 5 × 9 = 45 years.

Q4. D — 15%

Profit = ₹1,380 − ₹1,200 = ₹180.

Profit percentage = (180 ÷ 1,200) × 100 = 15%.

Q5. E — 7 hours 12 minutes

Combined rate = 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36 of the tank per hour.

Time = 36/5 = 7.2 hours = 7 hours 12 minutes.

Q6. A — 1:1

A's investment-time product = ₹6,000 × 8 = 48,000.

B's investment-time product = ₹8,000 × 6 = 48,000.

Profit-sharing ratio = 1:1.

Q7. B — 1/13

There are 4 kings in a deck of 52 cards.

Probability = 4/52 = 1/13.

Q8. C — 191

Pattern: Multiply each term by 2 and add 1.

95 × 2 + 1 = 191.

Q9. D — 7 metres north

The 5-metre eastward and 5-metre westward movements cancel each other.

Net northward distance = 4 + 3 = 7 metres.

Q10. E — 26th

Rank from the bottom = Total students − Rank from the top + 1.

= 42 − 17 + 1 = 26th.

Q11. A — MPBO

L → M, O → P, A → B, N → O.

Therefore, LOAN becomes MPBO.

Q12. B — Only conclusion I follows

P ≥ Q and Q > R guarantee that P > R.

However, T ≥ R permits T = R. Therefore, conclusion II is not necessarily true.

Q13. A — Only conclusion I follows

Some employees are managers, and no manager is a trainee. Therefore, some employees are not trainees.

The relationship between auditors and trainees is not established, so conclusion II does not follow.

Q14. D — Maternal uncle

B is C's mother, and A is B's brother. Therefore, A is C's maternal uncle.

Q15. E — Wise

“Prudent” means showing good judgement, wisdom and care.

Q16. C — Abundant

“Scarce” means insufficient or limited. “Abundant” means available in large quantities.

Q17. B — With

The correct expression is “comply with.”

Q18. C — Has submitted

“Each” is singular and takes the singular verb “has.”

Q19. D — Had received; would have been

This is a third conditional sentence describing an unreal past condition and its imagined result.

Q20. E — Accommodation

The correct spelling is accommodation, with double “c” and double “m”.

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📊 PERFORMANCE METER

17–20 | Excellent

Maintain speed and accuracy.

13–16 | Good

Identify weak areas and practise targeted questions.

9–12 | Needs improvement

Strengthen calculation and reasoning fundamentals.

Below 9 | Rebuild fundamentals

Revise core concepts before attempting another timed mock.

These are informal practice benchmarks, not official IBPS grading categories.

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🎯 FIVE RULES FOR A BETTER PRELIMS SCORE

1. Calculate smartly: Use percentage equivalents, ratio methods and approximation.

2. Recognise patterns: Practise number series, directions, inequalities and syllogisms.

3. Protect accuracy: Read every condition carefully before selecting an option.

4. Manage time: Skip time-consuming questions and return if time permits.

5. Learn from errors: Identify whether each mistake was conceptual, computational, logical or grammatical.

Negative marking: For practice, use the commonly adopted assumption of +1 for a correct answer and −0.25 for an incorrect answer, with zero for an unattempted question. Confirm the applicable rules in the latest official notification for your target examination.

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💬 DAILY CHALLENGE — YOUR TURN!

👍 Like this bulletin if it helps your preparation.

💬 Comment your score out of 20. Which question challenged you most?

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Disclaimer: This mini-mock is intended for educational purposes only. Follow the latest official examination pattern and syllabus. These questions do not guarantee coverage in any actual examination.