INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR)- IBPS PO MAINS — INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 203

📅 MONDAY, 19 OCTOBER 2026

🎯 TARGET: IBPS PO • Banking Officers • Banking Aspirants

📝 20 MCQs | 20 MARKS | 20 MINUTES

⚠️ Negative marking: 0.25 mark for each incorrect answer.

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SECTION 1 — ADVANCED MOCK TEST

Q1. According to the World Bank’s October 2026 India Development Update, India’s projected GDP growth rate for FY 2026–27 is:

A. 6.5%

B. 6.8%

C. 7.1%

D. 7.4%

E. 7.8%

Q2. According to the World Bank’s October 2026 report, India’s real GDP growth in FY 2025–26 was:

A. 7.0%

B. 7.8%

C. 6.5%

D. 7.2%

E. 8.1%

Q3. Private AI investment in India increased from US$1.2 billion in 2024 to approximately what amount in 2025, according to the World Bank?

A. US$4.1 billion

B. US$2.1 billion

C. US$2.8 billion

D. US$3.2 billion

E. US$5.1 billion

Q4. According to the World Bank’s October 2026 update, employment in India’s Global Capability Centres (GCCs) reached approximately how many professionals in 2025?

A. 1.50 million

B. 1.90 million

C. 2.10 million

D. 2.36 million

E. 2.80 million

Q5. The World Bank’s October 2026 South Asia Economic Update projected regional economic growth of how much for calendar year 2026?

A. 5.8%

B. 6.0%

C. 6.3%

D. 6.5%

E. 6.9%

Q6. The SEBI Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026, are scheduled to come into effect from:

A. 1 January 2027

B. 1 February 2027

C. 1 April 2027

D. 1 July 2027

E. 1 October 2027

Q7. Which regulations were covered by a third amendment notified by SEBI on 15 October 2026?

A. Alternative Investment Funds Regulations

B. Portfolio Managers Regulations

C. Research Analysts Regulations

D. Mutual Funds Regulations

E. Vault Managers Regulations

Q8. The SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations primarily prescribe listing-related obligations and disclosure requirements for:

A. Commercial banks

B. Listed entities

C. Insurance intermediaries

D. Pension funds

E. Cooperative societies

Q9. On 15 October 2026, SEBI notified the second amendment to which regulations relating to infrastructure investment vehicles?

A. Real Estate Investment Trusts Regulations

B. Alternative Investment Funds Regulations

C. Infrastructure Investment Trusts Regulations

D. Portfolio Managers Regulations

E. Research Analysts Regulations

Q10. SEBI’s circular dated 15 October 2026 reviewed aspects of the Closing Auction Session, market timings and:

A. Bank deposit insurance

B. Mutual fund expense ratios

C. Government securities auctions

D. Settlement methodology for derivatives contracts

E. MSME credit appraisal norms

Q11. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 reviewed provisions relating to International Securities Identification Numbers (ISINs) for:

A. Equity shares issued through public offers only

B. Sovereign gold bonds

C. Bank deposits

D. Insurance policies

E. Debt securities issued on a private-placement basis

Q12. Under SEBI’s Project Jagrook, investor-awareness messages are to be displayed by stock brokers on their:

A. Trading apps and websites

B. Branch notice boards only

C. Annual financial statements only

D. Customer passbooks

E. Credit rating reports

Q13. A term-loan account has remained overdue for 75 days. Under the standard SMA classification framework, the account generally falls under:

A. SMA-0

B. SMA-1

C. SMA-2

D. NPA immediately upon crossing 60 days

E. Standard asset without SMA classification

Q14. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, a resolution plan generally requires approval by at least what percentage of the voting share of the Committee of Creditors?

A. 51%

B. 60%

C. 66%

D. 75%

E. 90%

Q15. Under Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, a secured creditor ordinarily gives the borrower how many days to discharge the liability after issuing the demand notice?

A. 15 days

B. 30 days

C. 45 days

D. 60 days

E. 90 days

Q16. Under RBI’s external benchmark-based lending framework, the interest rate on an eligible floating-rate loan must generally be reset at least once every:

A. Month

B. Two months

C. Six months

D. Three months

E. Twelve months

Q17. Under RBI’s KYC framework, periodic updation of KYC records for a high-risk customer is generally required at least once every:

A. Six months

B. One year

C. Three years

D. Five years

E. Two years

Q18. The Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate (MCLR) system was introduced by RBI with effect from:

A. 1 April 2016

B. 1 April 2015

C. 1 January 2017

D. 1 July 2016

E. 1 April 2018

Q19. Which statement correctly describes Treasury Bills issued by the Government of India?

A. They carry a fixed annual coupon

B. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value

C. They are issued only for periods exceeding five years

D. They are equity instruments

E. Their interest rate is reset every month

Q20. In credit appraisal, the Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR) primarily measures a borrower’s ability to:

A. Maintain the statutory liquidity ratio

B. Increase working capital limits automatically

C. Meet debt-servicing obligations from available cash flows

D. Avoid all credit bureau reporting

E. Mobilise deposits from the public

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SECTION 2 — ANSWER KEY

Q1. C

Q2. B

Q3. A

Q4. D

Q5. E

Q6. C

Q7. A

Q8. B

Q9. C

Q10. D

Q11. E

Q12. A

Q13. C

Q14. C

Q15. D

Q16. D

Q17. E

Q18. A

Q19. B

Q20. C

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SECTION 3 — QUICK EXPLANATIONS

Q1. C — 7.1%: The World Bank projected India’s FY27 GDP growth at 7.1% in its October 2026 India Development Update.

Q2. B — 7.8%: The report stated that real GDP growth accelerated to 7.8% in FY26, compared with 7.2% in FY25.

Q3. A — US$4.1 billion: Private AI investment increased from US$1.2 billion in 2024 to US$4.1 billion in 2025.

Q4. D — 2.36 million: GCC employment increased from 1.9 million professionals in 2024 to 2.36 million in 2025.

Q5. E — 6.9%: The World Bank projected South Asia’s economic growth at 6.9% for 2026.

Q6. C — 1 April 2027: SEBI specified this effective date for the Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026.

Q7. A — Alternative Investment Funds Regulations: SEBI listed the Third Amendment Regulations on 15 October 2026.

Q8. B — Listed entities: LODR requirements govern listing-related obligations and disclosures by listed entities.

Q9. C — Infrastructure Investment Trusts Regulations: SEBI listed the second amendment to these regulations on 15 October 2026.

Q10. D — Derivatives settlement methodology: The circular addresses the Closing Auction Session, market timings and settlement methodology for derivatives contracts.

Q11. E — Privately placed debt securities: The circular reviewed ISIN-related provisions for debt securities issued on a private-placement basis.

Q12. A — Trading apps and websites: Project Jagrook includes investor-awareness messages on stock brokers’ digital platforms.

Q13. C — SMA-2: For a term loan, an overdue period of more than 60 days and up to 90 days generally falls under SMA-2.

Q14. C — 66%: The IBC prescribes a minimum 66% voting share for approval of a resolution plan by the Committee of Creditors.

Q15. D — 60 days: Section 13(2) of the SARFAESI Act ordinarily provides a 60-day demand-notice period.

Q16. D — Three months: Eligible external benchmark-linked floating-rate loans must generally be reset at least once every three months.

Q17. E — Two years: RBI’s KYC framework generally requires periodic updation at least once every two years for high-risk customers.

Q18. A — 1 April 2016: RBI introduced the MCLR-based lending rate system with effect from this date.

Q19. B — Discount and face value: Treasury Bills are short-term government securities issued below face value and redeemed at face value.

Q20. C — Debt servicing: DSCR assesses whether cash flow available to a borrower is sufficient to meet principal and interest obligations.

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SECTION 4 — HIGH-VALUE EXAM TRAPS

GDP growth: Do not confuse the FY27 projection of 7.1% with FY26’s reported growth of 7.8%.

AI investment: US$4.1 billion refers to private AI investment in 2025.

GCC employment: The 2.36 million figure refers to 2025, not 2024.

SEBI amendments: Distinguish AIF, LODR and InvIT regulations; their amendment numbers and regulatory scope differ.

SMA classification: SMA-2 applies to term-loan overdue periods exceeding 60 days and up to 90 days. The normal 90-day NPA norm is distinct.

IBC voting: The resolution-plan approval threshold is 66%, not 75%.

SARFAESI: The Section 13(2) demand-notice period is 60 days, not 30 days.

Treasury Bills: They are discount instruments, not coupon-bearing securities.

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SECTION 5 — CHECK YOUR SCORE

Maximum marks: 20

18–20: Excellent — strong command of banking and current affairs.

15–17.75: Very good — revise the concepts missed.

12–14.75: Good foundation — strengthen regulatory knowledge.

Below 12: Revisit the explanations and attempt the mock again.

Scoring formula: Correct answers × 1 − incorrect answers × 0.25.

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SECTION 6 — 60-SECOND RECALL

World Bank FY27 India growth projection: 7.1%

India’s reported FY26 real GDP growth: 7.8%

Private AI investment in 2025: US$4.1 billion

GCC employment in 2025: 2.36 million

South Asia growth projection for 2026: 6.9%

SEBI Portfolio Managers Regulations effective date: 1 April 2027

IBC resolution-plan voting threshold: 66%

SARFAESI Section 13(2) demand notice: 60 days

SMA-2 for term loans: More than 60 days and up to 90 days overdue

Treasury Bills: Issued at a discount; redeemed at face value

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SECTION 7 — YOUR ACTION ZONE

✅ Attempt all 20 questions before checking the key.

✅ Identify whether each incorrect answer arose from a factual gap, conceptual confusion or careless reading.

✅ Revise the relevant RBI directions and SEBI circulars from official sources.

✅ Reattempt the questions after 48 hours to test retention.

📌 IBR Learning Principle: Do not memorise figures alone. Understand the applicable threshold, effective date, regulatory provision and practical implication.

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