INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS PO MAINS — INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 205 📅 WEDNESDAY, 21 OCTOBER 2026 🎯 TARGET: IBPS PO • Banking Officers • Banking Aspirants 📝 20 MCQs | 20 MARKS | 20 MINUTES ⚠️ Negative marking: 0.25 mark for each incorrect answer.

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SECTION 1 — ADVANCED MOCK TEST

PART A — CURRENT BANKING & FINANCIAL AWARENESS

Q1. According to the RBI’s result of the 7-day Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction held on 19 October 2026, what amount was allotted against the notified amount of ₹1 lakh crore:

A. ₹1,00,014 crore

B. ₹90,000 crore

C. ₹75,000 crore

D. ₹1,25,000 crore

E. ₹1,50,735 crore

Q2. Following the October 2026 Monetary Policy Committee decision, the RBI policy repo rate was reported at:

A. 5.25%

B. 5.75%

C. 5.50%

D. 6.00%

E. 4.75%

Q3. Under SEBI’s Project Jagrook circular dated 1 October 2026, stock brokers are required to display investor-awareness messages on their:

A. Annual financial statements only

B. Customers’ bank passbooks

C. Credit rating reports

D. Physical share certificates

E. Trading apps and websites

Q4. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 introduced the Credit Risk-o-Meter as an additional disclosure mechanism for:

A. Equity shares

B. Debt securities

C. Bank fixed deposits

D. Insurance policies

E. Sovereign gold bonds

Q5. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 reviewed provisions related to International Securities Identification Numbers (ISINs) for:

A. Savings bank accounts

B. Insurance policies

C. Government currency notes

D. Debt securities issued through private placement

E. Agricultural credit accounts

Q6. SEBI’s circular dated 7 October 2026 provided an exemption from mandatory merchant banker appointment for certain listed issuers raising funds through:

A. Initial public offers of equity

B. Bank term deposits

C. Debt issued through private placement

D. Government Treasury Bills

E. Rights issues of equity shares only

Q7. SEBI’s Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026, are scheduled to take effect from:

A. 1 April 2027

B. 1 January 2027

C. 1 July 2027

D. 1 October 2027

E. 1 February 2027

Q8. Which regulatory framework was covered by SEBI’s Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, notified on 15 October 2026:

A. Mutual Funds Regulations

B. Portfolio Managers Regulations

C. Research Analysts Regulations

D. Alternative Investment Funds Regulations

E. Vault Managers Regulations

Q9. SEBI’s Third Amendment Regulations, 2026, notified on 15 October, also amended which framework:

A. Banking Regulation Act

B. Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations

C. Insurance Act

D. Payment and Settlement Systems Act

E. Foreign Exchange Management Act

Q10. On 15 October 2026, SEBI notified Second Amendment Regulations, 2026, for which two investment structures:

A. Mutual Funds and Portfolio Managers

B. Research Analysts and Vault Managers

C. Banks and NBFCs

D. Stock Brokers and Depositories

E. REITs and InvIT

Q11. Which statement correctly describes the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system in India:

A. It is available only during bank branch hours

B. It operates 24×7, including holidays

C. It settles transactions only once a week

D. It is restricted to transfers above ₹2 lakh

E. It is used only for interbank cash withdrawals

Q12. Under the standard RBI framework, the minimum amount for a customer transaction through Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) is:

A. ₹10,000

B. ₹50,000

C. ₹1 lakh

D. ₹2 lakh

E. No minimum amount

Q13. Which organisation operates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) ecosystem in India:

A. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

B. Reserve Bank of India’s DICGC department

C. NABARD

D. SEBI

E. IRDAI

Q14. Under the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requirement, banks maintain a prescribed proportion of their relevant net demand and time liabilities as:

A. Gold held in their own vaults

B. Loans to priority-sector borrowers

C. Equity shares of listed companies

D. Approved securities held with stock exchanges

E. Cash balances with the RBI

Q15. Which of the following correctly describes eligible assets maintained to meet the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):

A. Unsecured personal loans

B. Equity shares of any private company

C. Cash, gold and eligible approved securities, subject to RBI rules

D. Unbilled trade receivables

E. Office buildings only

Q16. Under the general RBI income-recognition and asset-classification framework, a term loan ordinarily becomes an NPA when principal or interest remains overdue for more than:

A. 30 days

B. 60 days

C. 120 days

D. 90 days

E. 180 days

Q17. The Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate (MCLR) framework was introduced primarily to improve:

A. Deposit insurance coverage

B. Agricultural land records

C. Foreign exchange reserves accounting

D. Stock-market derivatives settlement

E. Transparency and transmission of lending rates

Q18. The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) primarily aims to promote:

A. Export credit for large corporations

B. Financial inclusion through access to basic financial services

C. Equity investment by institutional investors

D. Insurance exclusively for government employees

E. Highway financing

Q19. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme primarily provides eligible farmers with:

A. Automatic waiver of outstanding farm loans

B. Guaranteed exemption from all agricultural loans

C. Timely and flexible credit for eligible agricultural and allied activities

D. Equity capital for commercial banks

E. Compulsory crop insurance without conditions

Q20. Under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, eligible secured creditors may, subject to the Act and applicable conditions:

A. Enforce security interests

B. Set the RBI repo rate

C. Waive all unsecured loans automatically

D. Issue currency notes directly

E. Insure every deposit held by a borrower

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SECTION 2 — ANSWER KEY

Q1. A

Q2. C

Q3. E

Q4. B

Q5. D

Q6. C

Q7. A

Q8. D

Q9. B

Q10. E

Q11. B

Q12. D

Q13. A

Q14. E

Q15. C

Q16. D

Q17. E

Q18. B

Q19. C

Q20. A

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SECTION 3 — QUICK EXPLANATIONS

Q1. A — ₹1,00,014 crore

The RBI allotted ₹1,00,014 crore against a notified ₹1 lakh crore. Total bids received were ₹1,50,735 crore. The allotment was slightly above the notified amount.

Q2. C — 5.50%

The RBI’s October 2026 MPC resolution reported a 25-basis-point increase from 5.25% to 5.50%. A basis point equals 0.01 percentage point.

Q3. E — Trading apps and websites

SEBI’s Project Jagrook initiative promotes investor awareness through messages displayed on stock brokers’ trading apps and websites.

Q4. B — Debt securities

The Credit Risk-o-Meter was introduced as an additional disclosure mechanism for debt securities. It should not be confused with the mutual fund Risk-o-Meter.

Q5. D — Privately placed debt securities

ISIN-related provisions identify and distinguish securities. SEBI’s circular reviewed provisions relating to debt securities issued on a private-placement basis.

Q6. C — Debt through private placement

The circular provides an exemption from mandatory merchant banker appointment for certain listed issuers raising debt through private placement, subject to the prescribed conditions.

Q7. A — 1 April 2027

SEBI’s regulations listing specifies 1 April 2027 as the effective date for the Portfolio Managers Regulations, 2026.

Q8. D — Alternative Investment Funds

SEBI notified the Alternative Investment Funds (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2026, on 15 October.

Q9. B — LODR Regulations

SEBI also notified the Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2026, on 15 October.

Q10. E — REITs and InvITs

SEBI notified the Second Amendment Regulations, 2026, for Real Estate Investment Trusts and Infrastructure Investment Trusts on 15 October.

Q11. B — NEFT operates 24×7

NEFT is available round the clock, including holidays. Transactions are processed in half-hourly batches.

Q12. D — ₹2 lakh

RTGS is intended for large-value, real-time gross settlement transactions. The standard minimum amount is ₹2 lakh, with no RBI-prescribed maximum.

Q13. A — NPCI

NPCI operates UPI, enabling interoperable digital payments through participating banks and payment-service providers.

Q14. E — Cash balances with RBI

CRR is the prescribed proportion of a bank’s relevant NDTL maintained as cash balances with the RBI.

Q15. C — Eligible liquid assets

SLR requires prescribed liquid assets, including cash, gold and eligible approved securities, subject to RBI rules.

Q16. D — More than 90 days

For ordinary term loans, the general NPA criterion is overdue status for more than 90 days. Specific asset categories may have different rules.

Q17. E — Lending-rate transmission

MCLR links lending rates to banks’ marginal cost of funds and other prescribed components, supporting transparency in loan pricing.

Q18. B — Financial inclusion

PMJDY promotes access to basic banking services, including bank accounts and remittance facilities, along with eligible associated benefits.

Q19. C — Agricultural and allied credit

KCC provides eligible farmers with a convenient credit mechanism for cultivation and specified allied activities, subject to scheme conditions.

Q20. A — Enforcement of security interests

SARFAESI enables eligible secured creditors to enforce security interests under the statutory framework, subject to safeguards and applicable exceptions.

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SECTION 4 — HIGH-VALUE EXAM TRAPS

🔹 VRR auction: Notified amount, total bids and actual allotment are different figures.

🔹 Repo rate: A monetary policy rate; not the same as a bank’s lending rate.

🔹 Project Jagrook: Investor-awareness messages on brokers’ trading apps and websites.

🔹 Credit Risk-o-Meter: Relates to debt securities, not the mutual fund Risk-o-Meter.

🔹 ISIN: Identifies a security; it is not a bank account number.

🔹 REIT vs InvIT: Real estate investment trusts versus infrastructure investment trusts.

🔹 CRR vs SLR: CRR is maintained as cash balances with RBI; SLR comprises prescribed eligible liquid assets.

🔹 NEFT vs RTGS: NEFT uses half-hourly batches; RTGS settles individually in real time.

🔹 NPA classification: The general 90-day rule must not be applied indiscriminately to every asset category.

🔹 KCC: Eligibility and lending conditions apply; it does not automatically waive outstanding loans.

🔹 SARFAESI: Enforcement remains subject to statutory conditions and exceptions.

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SECTION 5 — CHECK YOUR SCORE

🏆 Maximum marks: 20

18–20: Excellent — strong command of banking awareness.

15–17.75: Very good — revise the concepts missed.

12–14.75: Good foundation — strengthen regulatory and conceptual knowledge.

Below 12: Revisit the explanations and attempt the mock again.

Scoring formula: Correct answers × 1 − incorrect answers × 0.25.

Unattempted questions carry zero marks.

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SECTION 6 — 60-SECOND RECALL

📌 RBI VRR allotment, 19 October: ₹1,00,014 crore

📌 Total VRR bids received: ₹1,50,735 crore

📌 October 2026 repo rate: 5.50%

📌 Project Jagrook: Broker trading apps and websites

📌 Credit Risk-o-Meter: Debt securities

📌 ISIN review: Privately placed debt securities

📌 Portfolio Managers Regulations: Effective 1 April 2027

📌 AIF and LODR Third Amendments: 15 October 2026

📌 REIT and InvIT Second Amendments: 15 October 2026

📌 NEFT: 24×7; half-hourly batches

📌 RTGS: Minimum ₹2 lakh

📌 UPI operator: NPCI

📌 CRR: Cash balances with RBI

📌 SLR: Prescribed eligible liquid assets

📌 Term-loan NPA: Generally overdue for more than 90 days

📌 MCLR: Lending-rate benchmark

📌 PMJDY: Financial inclusion

📌 KCC: Eligible agricultural and allied credit

📌 SARFAESI: Enforcement of security interests, subject to law

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SECTION 7 — YOUR ACTION ZONE

✅ Attempt all 20 questions before checking the answer key.

✅ Calculate the difference between total VRR bids and the actual allotment.

✅ Revise the SEBI regulatory frameworks and notification dates.

✅ Explain the difference between CRR and SLR without looking at the notes.

✅ Reattempt the mock after 48 hours to test retention.

🎯 IBR Learning Principle: Understand the regulation, threshold, effective date and practical banking implication—not merely the answer.

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