INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS PO MAINS INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 185

📅 30 SEPTEMBER 2026 | WEDNESDAY

🎯 TARGET: IBPS PO • SBI PO • IBPS RRB • RBI • NABARD

⚡ 20 QUESTIONS | 20 MARKS | 15–18 MINUTES

❌ NEGATIVE MARKING: 0.25 MARK FOR EACH WRONG ANSWER

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🔥 TODAY'S INTELLIGENCE FOCUS

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🛡️ PCA & Supervisory Monitoring

📉 SMA & Early Warning Signals

⚖️ SARFAESI & IBC

💰 Bulk Deposits & Deposit Insurance

🤝 Co-Lending

📱 Digital Lending & KFS

⚖️ RBI Ombudsman 2026

🌐 FEMA Guarantees

🏛️ WMA & Government Banking

📊 BSR Returns

🥇 Gold Loans

💼 Securitisation

🔐 Account Aggregator

🤝 Business Correspondent

🏦 Loan Transfer & Credit Monitoring

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🔥 SECTION A — INTELLIGENCE TEST

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Q1. A bank shows persistent deterioration in specified supervisory indicators. The primary purpose of the RBI's Prompt Corrective Action framework is to:

A. Replace the bank's board of directors

B. Guarantee recovery of all stressed loans

C. Provide unlimited liquidity support

D. Enable timely supervisory intervention and corrective measures

E. Convert stressed assets into government securities

Q2. A borrower has an instalment that has become overdue but the account has not yet become an NPA. Which approach provides the earliest useful credit-risk signal:

A. Monitor the account under SMA categories and take corrective action

B. Wait until the account becomes doubtful

C. Treat the account as standard without further monitoring

D. Wait for annual financial statements

E. Consider only collateral value

Q3. A term-loan instalment has remained overdue for more than 60 days but not more than 90 days. The account would generally fall under:

A. SMA-0

B. SMA-1

C. NPA-Doubtful

D. NPA-Loss

E. SMA-2

Q4. A secured creditor seeks enforcement of security interest against an eligible defaulting borrower without first obtaining a court decree. Which legislation provides the principal statutory framework, subject to applicability and conditions:

A. Companies Act, 2013

B. SARFAESI Act, 2002

C. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

D. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

E. PMLA, 2002

Q5. Once Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process is admitted under the IBC, which consequence is associated with the statutory moratorium:

A. All liabilities are permanently extinguished

B. The corporate debtor becomes a government company

C. Specified proceedings and enforcement actions are stayed during the moratorium, subject to the Code

D. All creditors immediately receive full repayment

E. The corporate debtor is automatically liquidated

Q6. A depositor maintains eligible deposits of ₹7 lakh in different accounts held in the same capacity and right. For deposit insurance, which principle is most relevant:

A. Each account automatically receives separate ₹5 lakh cover

B. Insurance depends only on the number of accounts

C. Insurance depends only on depositor age

D. Eligible deposits in the same capacity and right are aggregated for determining the insurance limit

E. Savings deposits have unlimited insurance

Q7. Under the revised bulk-deposit framework effective from 1 October 2026, which statement is correct for applicable bulk deposits:

A. Banks are required to publish applicable bulk-deposit rates daily and generally apply uniform rates across branches, subject to permitted exceptions

B. Each branch may independently quote any rate

C. The framework applies only to savings accounts

D. Retail deposits below the bulk-deposit threshold are treated as bulk deposits

E. Existing deposits are automatically repriced

Q8. Under RBI's Co-Lending Arrangements framework, each participating regulated entity is required to retain a minimum share of each individual loan on its own books. The minimum share is:

A. 2%

B. 5%

C. 7.5%

D. 20%

E. 10%

Q9. A borrower obtains a digital loan through an app operated by a lending service provider. Before entering into the loan contract, which document is particularly important for transparent disclosure of key loan terms and annualised cost:

A. Only the borrower's bank statement

B. Key Facts Statement containing prescribed loan disclosures

C. Only the internal sanction note

D. Only the lender's annual report

E. Only the borrower's credit score

Q10. Under the Reserve Bank–Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2026, a complainant aggrieved by an Award may generally file an appeal within:

A. 7 days

B. 15 days

C. 30 days

D. 60 days

E. 90 days

Q11. Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026, which statement best describes the reporting framework for relevant cross-border guarantees:

A. Reporting is completely abolished

B. Only guarantees above US$100 million require reporting

C. Reporting is required only after invocation

D. Relevant issuance, modification and invocation are subject to the prescribed reporting mechanism

E. Reporting is required only once every five years

Q12. A State Government faces a temporary mismatch between receipts and payments. Which RBI facility is specifically designed to provide short-term accommodation for such temporary cash-flow mismatches:

A. Ways and Means Advances

B. Market Stabilisation Scheme

C. Cash Reserve Ratio

D. Marginal Standing Facility

E. Standing Deposit Facility

Q13. RBI's Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-1 primarily captures detailed information relating to:

A. Bank deposits

B. Foreign-exchange reserves

C. Insurance claims

D. Government expenditure

E. Credit extended by scheduled commercial banks

Q14. A bank sanctions a loan against eligible gold jewellery. Which prudential consideration is particularly important while determining the permissible lending amount:

A. Only borrower's salary

B. Applicable LTV requirements and regulatory conditions

C. Only age of jewellery

D. Only borrower's credit-card limit

E. Only bank's deposit growth

Q15. A bank transfers a pool of eligible financial assets to an entity established for securitisation. What is the fundamental economic purpose of securitisation:

A. Convert every loan into equity capital

B. Eliminate all credit risk automatically

C. Pool financial assets and transform their cash flows into securities for investors, subject to the regulatory framework

D. Convert deposits into currency notes

E. Eliminate the need for credit appraisal

Q16. A bank notices stable borrower turnover, but inventory and overdue receivables are rising continuously while drawing-power utilisation remains high. What should the lender investigate first:

A. Whether the borrower should automatically receive a higher limit

B. Whether collateral value alone is sufficient

C. Whether the account should immediately be classified as fraud

D. Whether the reported working-capital position and cash-flow generation are consistent with the business activity

E. Whether stock statements should be discontinued

Q17. An RBI-appointed advisory committee has recommended increasing the aggregate Ways and Means Advances limit for State Governments from ₹61,008 crore to approximately:

A. ₹67,839 crore

B. ₹70,000 crore

C. ₹75,000 crore

D. ₹61,839 crore

E. ₹65,000 crore

Q18. A customer wants to share bank-account information with a lender through the Account Aggregator ecosystem. Which principle is fundamental:

A. The Account Aggregator may share information without customer consent

B. Financial information is shared through a consent-based mechanism authorised by the customer

C. The Account Aggregator becomes the owner of the customer's financial information

D. Customer credentials must be shared with the Account Aggregator

E. Information can be shared permanently once consent is given

Q19. A bank appoints a Business Correspondent to provide specified banking services. Which principle is most appropriate:

A. The bank has no responsibility for the BC's conduct

B. The BC can independently change the bank's customer-service rules

C. The bank remains responsible for the acts/omissions of its BCs within the applicable regulatory framework

D. BCs can freely access customer passwords and PINs

E. BCs are outside the bank's monitoring framework

Q20. In a direct assignment of loans, which statement best distinguishes the transaction from securitisation:

A. No financial asset is transferred

B. Deposits are converted into equity

C. Only government securities can be transferred

D. The borrower is automatically released from all obligations

E. Eligible loans are transferred directly to the transferee, subject to applicable regulatory conditions, rather than being converted into securities through a securitisation structure

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🗝️ ANSWER KEY

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Q1.D

Q2.A

Q3.E

Q4.B

Q5.C

Q6.D

Q7.A

Q8.E

Q9.B

Q10.C

Q11.D

Q12.A

Q13.E

Q14.B

Q15.C

Q16.D

Q17.A

Q18.B

Q19.C

Q20.E

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🧠 IBR QUICK REVISION

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1. PCA

Supervisory framework for timely corrective intervention when specified indicators deteriorate.

🎯 EARLY WARNING → SUPERVISORY ACTION

2. SMA

SMA-0: up to 30 days

SMA-1: >30–60 days

SMA-2: >60–90 days

🎯 SMA → PRE-NPA WARNING

3. SARFAESI

Provides a statutory framework for enforcement of security interest by eligible secured creditors, subject to conditions.

🎯 SECURED CREDIT → ENFORCEMENT

4. IBC MORATORIUM

Specified proceedings and enforcement actions are stayed during the statutory moratorium.

🎯 CIRP → MORATORIUM

5. DEPOSIT INSURANCE

Eligible deposits in the same capacity and same right are aggregated for determining insurance cover.

🎯 SAME CAPACITY + SAME RIGHT → AGGREGATION

6. BULK DEPOSITS

For applicable bulk deposits, the revised framework from 1 October 2026 emphasises transparent rate publication and consistency in pricing.

🎯 BULK DEPOSIT → TRANSPARENCY

7. CO-LENDING

Each participating regulated entity retains at least 10% of each individual loan on its books.

🎯 CO-LENDING → RISK SHARING

8. KFS

Key Facts Statement promotes transparent disclosure of important loan terms and costs.

🎯 KFS → BORROWER TRANSPARENCY

9. RB-IOS 2026

Scheme effective from 1 July 2026. Appeal against an Ombudsman Award is generally available within 30 days.

🎯 AWARD → APPEAL → 30 DAYS

10. FEMA GUARANTEES 2026

Relevant cross-border guarantees are subject to prescribed regulatory reporting.

🎯 GUARANTEE → FEMA COMPLIANCE

11. WMA

Designed for temporary mismatches between government receipts and payments.

🎯 TEMPORARY CASH GAP → WMA

12. BSR

BSR-1 → Credit

BSR-2 → Deposits

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🏆 5-MINUTE POST-MOCK ANALYSIS

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📌 SCORE: ____ / 20

📌 WRONG: ____

📌 UNATTEMPTED: ____

📌 CONCEPTUAL ERRORS: ____

📌 CARELESS ERRORS: ____

📌 CURRENT-AFFAIRS ERRORS: ____

🎯 TOP 2 WEAK AREAS:

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📊 SCORE GUIDE

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🔥 18–20 → EXCELLENT COMMAND

🟢 16–17 → STRONG

🟡 13–15 → REVISE WEAK AREAS

🟠 10–12 → CONCEPT REVISION REQUIRED

🔴 BELOW 10 → STRENGTHEN CORE CONCEPTS

🎯 IBR PRACTICE TARGET: 18+

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🚀 IBR PREMIUM

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📘 Advanced PO & AFO Mains Mocks

📑 RBI Guideline Briefs

🧠 Banking Intelligence

📊 Current Affairs Analysis

🎯 Exam-Focused Practice

🔥 90-DAY PREMIUM ACCESS

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📢 IBR DAILY PRACTICE CHALLENGE

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🎯 Attempt today's mock in 15–18 minutes.

📝 Record your score.

🔍 Identify your TOP 2 weaknesses.

📚 Revise them before tomorrow's mock.

ONE MOCK A DAY.

ONE SET OF WEAKNESSES LESS.

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🔥 FINAL MANTRA

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FACT → RULE → APPLICATION → RISK → CONTROL → EXAM TRAP

🏦 THAT IS THE IBR INTELLIGENCE APPROACH.

🎯 READ SMART • THINK BANKING • ANSWER INTELLIGENTLY

— INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR)