INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS PO MAINS INTELLIGENCE MOCK
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π₯ PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 176
π 22 SEPTEMBER 2026 | TUESDAY
π― TARGET EXAMS
IBPS PO | SBI PO | IBPS RRB | RBI | NABARD
β‘ 20 QUESTIONS | 20 MARKS | 15β18 MINUTES
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π₯ TODAY'S FOCUS
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π Account Aggregator & Consent-Based Data Sharing
π³ Digital Banking & Customer Protection
π¦ Internal Controls & Segregation of Duties
π‘οΈ MII Business Continuity & Disaster Recovery
π» MII Cybersecurity & Technology Risk
ποΈ MII Governance
π Derivatives β Settlement Methodology
π° Mutual Fund β Net Settlement
π΄ NPS Swasthya
π NPS Contribution Identification
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π₯ SECTION A β INTELLIGENCE TEST
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Q1. The Account Aggregator framework primarily enables a customer to:
A. Share financial information through a consent-based regulated framework
B. Transfer ownership of a bank account electronically
C. Obtain automatic loan approval
D. Bypass KYC requirements
E. Convert deposits into securities
Q2. The core principle underlying the Account Aggregator framework is:
A. Mandatory sharing of financial information
B. Consent-based sharing of financial information
C. Unrestricted access to customer data
D. Data sharing without authentication
E. Bank ownership of all customer information
Q3. If a customer withdraws consent for an authorised data-sharing arrangement, the bank should primarily ensure that:
A. Data continues to be shared permanently
B. The account is immediately closed
C. Applicable consent and data-sharing controls are respected
D. The customer's PAN is cancelled
E. The customer's deposits are frozen
Q4. In digital banking, customer authentication primarily establishes:
A. The profitability of the transaction
B. The customer's creditworthiness
C. The bank's liquidity position
D. The identity or authority of the person initiating the transaction
E. The market value of the customer's assets
Q5. In cases of unauthorised electronic banking transactions, customer liability under the applicable RBI framework is influenced by factors including:
A. Customer's age and occupation
B. Customer's account balance
C. Customer's negligence and the timing of reporting
D. Branch profitability
E. Type of deposit account alone
Q6. The primary purpose of segregation of duties in a bank is to:
A. Concentrate authority in one employee
B. Separate incompatible functions to reduce risk
C. Increase the number of approvals without purpose
D. Eliminate maker-checker controls
E. Reduce transaction audit trails
Q7. Which situation best demonstrates an effective maker-checker control?
A. The same employee initiates and approves a transaction
B. The customer approves the bank's internal transaction
C. An independent authorised employee verifies a transaction initiated by another employee
D. The branch manager delegates all approvals permanently
E. The system records no user identity
Q8. A control weakness identified during internal review should ideally be addressed before it:
A. Becomes a significant operational or financial loss
B. Appears in the annual report
C. Is reported by another bank
D. Changes the repo rate
E. Affects the bank's share price
Q9. SEBI's September 2026 consultation on Market Infrastructure Institutions focuses on strengthening:
A. Priority-sector lending
B. Deposit insurance
C. Business Continuity Plan and Disaster Recovery arrangements
D. Agricultural refinancing
E. Pension contributions
Q10. The primary objective of a Business Continuity Plan is to:
A. Guarantee uninterrupted profits
B. Maintain critical operations during disruptive events
C. Eliminate every cyber threat
D. Increase securities turnover
E. Reduce regulatory reporting
Q11. Disaster Recovery arrangements are principally designed to:
A. Determine investor eligibility
B. Fix security prices
C. Restore critical technology and operations following disruption
D. Increase bank deposits
E. Determine dividend rates
Q12. SEBI's September 2026 consultation concerning IT and Cyber Security Framework requirements for MII subsidiaries is primarily aimed at:
A. Removing cybersecurity requirements from MIIs
B. Extending appropriate technology and cyber-risk controls to relevant subsidiaries
C. Eliminating incident reporting
D. Replacing all internal audits
E. Permitting unrestricted access to customer data
Q13. SEBI's September 2026 consultation on derivatives includes review of:
A. Deposit insurance and bank capital
B. Priority-sector targets
C. Closing auction session, market timings and settlement methodologies
D. Pension taxation
E. KYC periodicity
Q14. The primary purpose of a settlement methodology in a derivatives market is to determine:
A. How contractual obligations are discharged
B. The guaranteed profit of traders
C. The bank's deposit rate
D. The foreign-exchange reserve level
E. The credit rating of an investor
Q15. SEBI's September 2026 proposal concerning mutual-fund schemes relates to:
A. Conversion of mutual funds into banks
B. Net settlement of funds for eligible cash-market transactions
C. Issuance of currency by mutual funds
D. Guaranteed returns to investors
E. Removal of all disclosure requirements
Q16. PFRDA issued Operational Guidelines for NPS Swasthya under the:
A. National Pension System
B. Deposit Insurance Scheme
C. Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme
D. PM-KISAN Scheme
E. Employees' Provident Fund
Q17. PFRDA's September 2026 advisory requires mandatory capture of TID in the:
A. PAN application
B. Demat account statement
C. Sender to Receiver Information field
D. Insurance proposal
E. Credit appraisal memorandum
Q18. In NPS contribution remittance, capturing TID primarily strengthens:
A. Transaction identification and reconciliation
B. Interest-rate determination
C. Equity valuation
D. Pension fund returns
E. Tax assessment
Q19. PFRDA's standardised framework for classification and presentation of NPS schemes primarily seeks to improve:
A. Bank liquidity
B. Government borrowing
C. Currency circulation
D. Consistency and clarity in scheme classification and presentation
E. Insurance underwriting
Q20. A bank receives a new regulatory instruction concerning a particular product. Before implementing it, the compliance function should first determine:
A. Whether another bank has implemented it
B. Whether customers are likely to object
C. Whether it will increase profitability
D. Whether the branch can postpone implementation
E. Whether the instruction applies to the bank and the relevant activity
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ποΈ ANSWER KEY
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Q1.A
Q2.B
Q3.C
Q4.D
Q5.C
Q6.B
Q7.C
Q8.A
Q9.C
Q10.B
Q11.C
Q12.B
Q13.C
Q14.A
Q15.B
Q16.A
Q17.C
Q18.A
Q19.D
Q20.E
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π§ IBR QUICK REVISION
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π 1. ACCOUNT AGGREGATOR
The Account Aggregator framework facilitates consent-based sharing of financial information.
π― KEY POINT:
Consent-based sharing β unrestricted access to customer data.
π³ 2. DIGITAL BANKING
Authentication helps establish the identity or authority of the person initiating a transaction.
π― KEY POINT:
Authentication is a control; it does not by itself eliminate fraud risk.
π¦ 3. SEGREGATION OF DUTIES
Incompatible functions should be separated to reduce the possibility of error, misuse or unauthorised activity.
π― KEY POINT:
Maker β Checker.
π‘οΈ 4. BUSINESS CONTINUITY
BCP focuses on maintaining critical functions during disruptive events.
π» 5. DISASTER RECOVERY
DR focuses on restoration of critical systems and operations following disruption.
π― EXAM TRAP:
BCP and DR are related but not identical.
π 6. MII CYBERSECURITY
SEBI's 11 September 2026 consultation concerns applicability of the IT and Cyber Security Framework of MIIs to their subsidiaries.
ποΈ 7. MII GOVERNANCE
SEBI issued a 9 September 2026 consultation paper on strengthening governance of Market Infrastructure Institutions.
π 8. DERIVATIVES
SEBI's 12 September consultation covers aspects including the Closing Auction Session, market timings and settlement methodologies for derivative contracts.
π° 9. MUTUAL FUND NET SETTLEMENT
SEBI's 3 September 2026 consultation proposes permitting net settlement of funds for transactions undertaken by mutual-fund schemes in the cash market.
π΄ 10. NPS SWASTHYA
PFRDA issued Operational Guidelines for NPS Swasthya under NPS on 18 September 2026.
π 11. TID
PFRDA's 14 September 2026 advisory concerns mandatory capture of TID in the "Sender to Receiver Information" field while remitting NPS contributions to the Trustee Bank.
π 12. NPS SCHEME CLASSIFICATION
PFRDA's active circulars include the standardised framework and its operationalisation for classification and presentation of NPS schemes.
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β οΈ IBR PO MAINS EXAM TRAPS
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πΉ Account Aggregator β consent-based data sharing, not unrestricted access.
πΉ Authentication β establishes identity/authority; it is not a complete fraud-prevention mechanism.
πΉ Segregation of duties β incompatible functions should not be concentrated in one person.
πΉ Maker-checker β independent verification is essential.
πΉ BCP β continuity during disruption.
πΉ DR β restoration and recovery after disruption.
πΉ Cybersecurity β technology risk can extend across the relevant institutional ecosystem.
πΉ Settlement methodology β determines how obligations are discharged; it does not guarantee profits.
πΉ Net settlement β determines net obligations; it does not mean cancellation of settlement.
πΉ TID β strengthens transaction identification and reconciliation.
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π SCORE GUIDE
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π₯ 18β20 β ELITE MAINS ZONE
π’ 16β17 β EXAM READY
π‘ 13β15 β GOOD β REVISE WEAK AREAS
π 10β12 β NEEDS CONCEPT REVISION
π΄ BELOW 10 β REBUILD CORE CONCEPTS
π― IBR TARGET: 18+
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π― TODAY'S INTELLIGENCE MAP
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CUSTOMER DATA
β
CONSENT
β
ACCOUNT AGGREGATOR
β
CONTROLLED DATA SHARING
DIGITAL TRANSACTION
β
AUTHENTICATION
β
CUSTOMER PROTECTION
BANK CONTROL
β
SEGREGATION OF DUTIES
β
MAKER-CHECKER
β
RISK MITIGATION
MII
β
BCP + DR
β
CYBER RESILIENCE
β
BUSINESS CONTINUITY
DERIVATIVES
β
MARKET MECHANISM
β
SETTLEMENT
β
ORDERLY MARKETS
NPS CONTRIBUTION
β
TID
β
IDENTIFICATION
β
RECONCILIATION
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π JOIN THE IBR INTELLIGENCE ECOSYSTEM
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π₯ FINAL MANTRA
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Don't merely memorise a regulatory headline.
Convert every headline into:
FACT β CONCEPT β APPLICATION β IMPACT β EXAM TRAP
π¦ THAT IS THE IBR INTELLIGENCE APPROACH.
π― READ SMART β’ THINK BANKING β’ ANSWER INTELLIGENTLY
β INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR)
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