INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS AFO MAINS – AGRICULTURE INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 219

📅 TUESDAY, 3 NOVEMBER 2026

🎯 TARGET EXAMINATION

IBPS AFO Mains – Professional Knowledge

📝 20 QUESTIONS | 40 MARKS | 15 MINUTES

Marking Scheme: +2 for every correct answer | −0.50 for every incorrect answer

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SECTION 1: AGRICULTURE INTELLIGENCE MOCK

Q1. An irrigation project has a duty of 1,800 hectares per cumec and a base period of 120 days. Assuming the duty is measured at the field outlet, the depth of water delivered over the cropped area during the base period is approximately:

A. 48.6 cm

B. 52.4 cm

C. 54.2 cm

D. 57.6 cm

E. 62.4 cm

Q2. A crop has ETo of 5 mm/day and a crop coefficient of 0.8. Irrigation is scheduled at seven-day intervals. If application efficiency is 70% and effective rainfall is zero, the gross irrigation depth required per irrigation is:

A. 28 mm

B. 32 mm

C. 36 mm

D. 40 mm

E. 45 mm

Q3. A drip system has one 4-litre/hour emitter per plant. The crop is planted at 0.5 m × 1 m spacing. If the system operates for two hours, the total water applied per hectare is:

A. 80 m³

B. 100 m³

C. 120 m³

D. 140 m³

E. 160 m³

Q4. Soil analysis of a field reveals high electrical conductivity, but exchangeable sodium percentage is within the normal range. The farmer has access to good-quality irrigation water. Which reclamation strategy is most appropriate?

A. Apply gypsum without providing drainage

B. Apply lime to increase soil pH

C. Provide adequate drainage and leach soluble salts

D. Apply additional sodium-containing amendments

E. Stop irrigation permanently

Q5. A soil sample has a CEC of 20 cmol(p⁺)/kg. Exchangeable Ca, Mg, K and Na are 8, 3, 1 and 2 cmol(p⁺)/kg respectively. The base saturation percentage is:

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 65%

D. 70%

E. 75%

Q6. A groundnut crop grown on calcareous soil shows interveinal chlorosis on young leaves. Soil pH is high, and nitrogen application has not corrected the symptoms. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely?

A. Nitrogen

B. Iron

C. Phosphorus

D. Potassium

E. Magnesium

Q7. A farmer repeatedly uses herbicides belonging to the same mode-of-action group. After several seasons, the dominant weed species survives the recommended application rate. Which strategy offers the most sustainable resistance-management approach?

A. Increase the dose beyond the label recommendation

B. Repeat the same herbicide more frequently

C. Apply the herbicide only after weed flowering

D. Rotate effective modes of action and integrate cultural and mechanical control

E. Depend exclusively on herbicide application

Q8. In a cotton field, the pest population is increasing but remains below the Economic Injury Level. The farmer wants to initiate control sufficiently early to prevent economic damage. Which threshold should guide the decision?

A. Carrying capacity

B. Economic Threshold Level

C. Biotic potential

D. Pest resurgence level

E. Economic damage coefficient

Q9. An extension officer wants to monitor the activity of a specific moth species before its larval population causes serious crop damage. Which monitoring device is most appropriate?

A. Species-specific pheromone trap

B. Soil moisture sensor

C. Leaf area meter

D. Soil sampling auger

E. Lysimeter

Q10. A susceptible crop is exposed to a virulent fungal pathogen. However, prolonged dry weather prevents spore germination and infection. Which factor is primarily restricting disease development?

A. Host genetic composition

B. Pathogen identity

C. Environmental conditions

D. Seed viability

E. Crop maturity

Q11. The base temperature of a crop is 10°C. On a particular day, the maximum temperature is 32°C and the minimum temperature is 20°C. Assuming no temperature adjustment is required, the GDD accumulated is:

A. 10°C-days

B. 12°C-days

C. 14°C-days

D. 16°C-days

E. 18°C-days

Q12. Under a hypothetical crop-insurance assessment, the Threshold Yield is 2,000 kg/ha, Actual Yield is 1,400 kg/ha and Sum Insured is ₹40,000/ha. Using the formula [(Threshold Yield − Actual Yield)/Threshold Yield] × Sum Insured, the indicative claim is:

A. ₹8,000/ha

B. ₹10,000/ha

C. ₹12,000/ha

D. ₹14,000/ha

E. ₹16,000/ha

Q13. Following a 10% reduction in the price of an agricultural commodity, its quantity demanded increases by 20%. Using the percentage-change method based on original values, the absolute price elasticity of demand is:

A. 0.5

B. 1.0

C. 1.5

D. 2.0

E. 2.5

Q14. A farmer deposits produce in a registered warehouse and obtains an Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt. Which facility can this instrument potentially enable?

A. Automatic waiver of all agricultural loans

B. Transfer of ownership of agricultural land

C. Exemption from warehouse storage charges

D. Transfer of title to stored goods and access to pledge finance

E. Guaranteed minimum sale price irrespective of market conditions

Q15. A dairy farmer observes no visible inflammation in a cow's udder. However, milk from one quarter produces a gel-like reaction when mixed with the prescribed reagent. What is the most likely test and its significance?

A. California Mastitis Test – screening for subclinical mastitis

B. Gerber test – detection of milk fat

C. Lactometer test – detection of bacterial infection

D. Alcohol test – estimation of somatic cell count

E. Methylene blue test – detection of udder injury

Q16. A broiler unit consumes 1,800 kg of feed and produces 1,000 kg of live-weight gain during a production cycle. Assuming the figures represent total feed consumed and total weight gain, the FCR is:

A. 1.2

B. 1.5

C. 1.8

D. 2.0

E. 2.2

Q17. A farmer stores chopped green fodder in an airtight silo. After fermentation, the pH decreases and the fodder is preserved. Which process is mainly responsible?

A. Aerobic fungal decomposition

B. Anaerobic fermentation producing lactic acid

C. Complete oxidation of carbohydrates

D. Alkaline fermentation

E. High-temperature sterilisation

Q18. A farmer adopts composite fish culture with Catla, Rohu and Mrigal. To minimise competition for food, which feeding-zone combination should be maintained?

A. Catla – bottom; Rohu – surface; Mrigal – column

B. Catla – column; Rohu – bottom; Mrigal – surface

C. Catla – bottom; Rohu – column; Mrigal – surface

D. Catla – surface; Rohu – bottom; Mrigal – column

E. Catla – surface; Rohu – column; Mrigal – bottom

Q19. In a rainfed watershed, farmers construct small barriers across seasonal drainage channels. The structures reduce runoff velocity, trap sediment and promote groundwater recharge. These are known as:

A. Field bunds

B. Contour trenches

C. Diversion drains

D. Check dams

E. Bench terraces

Q20. During preparation of a village agricultural development plan, farmers prepare social maps, resource maps and seasonal calendars to identify local constraints and prioritise interventions. Which participatory planning tool is being used?

A. Cost-benefit analysis

B. Linear programming

C. Participatory Rural Appraisal

D. Critical path analysis

E. Benchmarking

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SECTION 2: ANSWER KEY

Q1.D

Q2.D

Q3.E

Q4.C

Q5.D

Q6.B

Q7.D

Q8.B

Q9.A

Q10.C

Q11.D

Q12.C

Q13.D

Q14.D

Q15.A

Q16.C

Q17.B

Q18.E

Q19.D

Q20.C

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🚀 YOUR TURN – TAKE THE CHALLENGE!

✅ Attempted all 20 questions?

📊 Calculate your score out of 40.

🎯 Target: 36+ marks in 15 minutes.

💬 COMMENT YOUR SCORE!

Challenge yourself and compare your performance with fellow AFO aspirants.

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SECTION 3: DETAILED EXPLANATIONS

Q1. Answer: D – 57.6 cm

Delta = (8.64 × Base Period)/Duty

= (8.64 × 120)/1,800 = 0.576 m = 57.6 cm.

Q2. Answer: D – 40 mm

ETc = ETo × Kc = 5 × 0.8 = 4 mm/day.

Seven-day net requirement = 28 mm.

Gross requirement = 28/0.70 = 40 mm.

Q3. Answer: E – 160 m³

Plants per hectare = 10,000/(0.5 × 1) = 20,000.

Total discharge = 20,000 × 4 = 80,000 litres/hour.

For two hours = 160,000 litres = 160 m³.

Q4. Answer: C – Drainage and leaching

Saline soils contain excess soluble salts. Drainage followed by leaching removes these salts from the root zone. Gypsum is primarily used for sodic soil reclamation.

Q5. Answer: D – 70%

Sum of exchangeable bases = 8 + 3 + 1 + 2 = 14.

Base saturation = (14/20) × 100 = 70%.

Q6. Answer: B – Iron

Iron deficiency commonly causes interveinal chlorosis in young leaves because iron has limited mobility within plants. High soil pH in calcareous soils reduces iron availability.

Q7. Answer: D – Integrated resistance management

Repeated use of the same herbicide mode of action selects resistant weed biotypes. Rotation of effective modes of action, combined with cultural and mechanical methods, helps delay resistance.

Q8. Answer: B – Economic Threshold Level

ETL is the pest population density at which control measures should begin to prevent the population from reaching the Economic Injury Level.

Q9. Answer: A – Pheromone trap

Species-specific pheromone traps attract target insects and help monitor pest activity. They support timely decisions but should be used along with field scouting.

Q10. Answer: C – Environmental conditions

The disease triangle comprises a susceptible host, a virulent pathogen and favourable environmental conditions. Unfavourable weather can restrict infection even when host and pathogen are present.

Q11. Answer: D – 16°C-days

GDD = [(Tmax + Tmin)/2] − Base temperature

= [(32 + 20)/2] − 10 = 16°C-days.

Q12. Answer: C – ₹12,000/ha

Claim = [(2,000 − 1,400)/2,000] × ₹40,000

= 0.30 × ₹40,000 = ₹12,000/ha.

This is an illustrative calculation; actual claims depend on applicable scheme provisions and assessment procedures.

Q13. Answer: D – 2.0

Absolute price elasticity = 20/10 = 2.0. Since elasticity exceeds one, demand is price elastic.

Q14. Answer: D – Transfer of title and pledge finance

An eNWR is an electronic negotiable document of title representing goods deposited in a registered warehouse. It can facilitate transfer of title and pledge-based financing, subject to applicable requirements.

Q15. Answer: A – California Mastitis Test

CMT is a screening test for increased somatic cell concentration in milk and is useful in detecting possible subclinical mastitis. It does not independently identify the causative pathogen.

Q16. Answer: C – 1.8

FCR = Feed consumed/Live-weight gain

= 1,800/1,000 = 1.8.

Lower FCR generally indicates better feed conversion under comparable production conditions.

Q17. Answer: B – Anaerobic lactic fermentation

Under airtight conditions, lactic acid bacteria ferment soluble carbohydrates and lower the pH. This inhibits undesirable microbial activity and preserves fodder.

Q18. Answer: E – Catla surface, Rohu column, Mrigal bottom

Catla primarily feeds near the surface, Rohu in the water column and Mrigal near the pond bottom. Their different feeding zones reduce competition.

Q19. Answer: D – Check dams

Check dams are small barriers across drainage channels. They slow runoff, reduce erosion, trap sediment and improve groundwater recharge.

Q20. Answer: C – Participatory Rural Appraisal

PRA involves local communities in identifying resources, constraints and development priorities. Social mapping, resource mapping and seasonal calendars are commonly used tools.

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SECTION 4: QUICK REVISION CAPSULE

1. Duty–Delta: Δ (m) = 8.64 × B/D.

2. Crop ET: ETc = ETo × Kc.

3. Gross irrigation: Net depth/Application efficiency.

4. Saline soil: Drainage and leaching.

5. Sodic soil: Gypsum based on gypsum requirement.

6. Base saturation: Exchangeable bases/CEC × 100.

7. Iron deficiency: Interveinal chlorosis in young leaves.

8. Herbicide resistance: Rotate modes of action and integrate weed management.

9. ETL: Control action begins before EIL is reached.

10. Pheromone traps: Species-specific insect monitoring.

11. Disease triangle: Host + pathogen + favourable environment.

12. GDD: Mean temperature minus base temperature.

13. Price elasticity: Percentage change in quantity/percentage change in price.

14. eNWR: Negotiable electronic document of title to stored goods.

15. CMT: Screening for subclinical mastitis.

16. FCR: Feed consumed/weight gain.

17. Silage: Anaerobic fermentation and lactic acid production.

18. Composite fish culture: Catla – surface; Rohu – column; Mrigal – bottom.

19. Check dams: Runoff control and groundwater recharge.

20. PRA: Community participation in rural planning.

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SECTION 5: SELF-ASSESSMENT

MAXIMUM MARKS: 40 | TIME: 15 MINUTES

🏆 36–40: Excellent – Strong examination readiness

🥇 30–35: Very Good – Competitive performance

📘 22–29: Good – Improve application and analytical skills

📖 Below 22: Revise fundamentals and practise more questions

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Disclaimer: This is an independently prepared practice mock for examination preparation. It is not an official IBPS question paper or a prediction of questions in the examination.