INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS AFO MAINS — AGRICULTURE INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 218

📅 MONDAY, 2 NOVEMBER 2026

🎯 TARGET EXAMINATION: IBPS AFO Mains — Professional Knowledge

📝 20 QUESTIONS | 40 MARKS | 15 MINUTES

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🌱 AGRICULTURE INTELLIGENCE MOCK

Q1. A farmer plans to establish a crop at 45 cm × 20 cm spacing over 2 hectares. Assuming uniform spacing throughout the cultivated area, the approximate number of planting positions required is:

A. 1,80,000

B. 2,00,000

C. 2,11,111

D. 2,22,222

E. 2,50,000

Q2. A crop requires 60 kg P₂O₅/ha. A farmer supplies 40 kg P₂O₅/ha through another fertiliser. The remaining requirement is to be met using single superphosphate (SSP) containing 16% P₂O₅. How much SSP is required per hectare:

A. 100 kg

B. 125 kg

C. 150 kg

D. 200 kg

E. 250 kg

Q3. A soil has high exchangeable sodium, poor aggregate stability and low infiltration. Assuming suitable drainage and water are available, which intervention is most appropriate for reclaiming the sodic soil:

A. Apply gypsum according to the calculated requirement, followed by appropriate leaching

B. Apply nitrogen fertiliser alone to replace exchangeable sodium

C. Increase the sodium concentration of irrigation water

D. Apply lime indiscriminately without assessing soil properties

E. Stop all irrigation permanently

Q4. A pulse crop develops poorly nodulated roots and shows nitrogen deficiency despite adequate moisture. Which approach is most appropriate before deciding on additional nitrogen fertiliser:

A. Apply excessive nitrogen immediately because nodulation is irrelevant

B. Eliminate all soil microorganisms using a broad-spectrum chemical

C. Increase plant population to compensate for poor nodulation

D. Examine inoculant quality, compatible Rhizobium strains, soil conditions and root health

E. Assume biological nitrogen fixation is independent of soil pH

Q5. A maize crop and a wheat crop are exposed to high temperatures and strong sunlight. Under otherwise suitable conditions, which statement best explains the physiological advantage of maize:

A. Maize is a C₃ crop and therefore has no photorespiration

B. Its C₄ pathway concentrates CO₂ around Rubisco, generally reducing photorespiration

C. Its photosynthesis is independent of stomatal behaviour

D. It can maintain maximum photosynthesis without water

E. Its carbon fixation occurs exclusively at night

Q6. A breeder is developing a uniform, stable variety from a segregating population of a self-pollinated crop. Which strategy is most suitable:

A. Maintain the original segregating population without selection indefinitely

B. Conduct repeated random mating in every generation

C. Select desirable plants and advance progenies through successive self-pollination and evaluation

D. Cross every selected plant with a different unrelated species

E. Select plants exclusively on the basis of height in the first generation

Q7. In a field trial, a fertilised plot records nutrient uptake of 105 kg/ha, while the unfertilised control records 65 kg/ha. If 80 kg nutrient/ha was applied, the apparent nutrient-recovery efficiency is:

A. 40%

B. 45%

C. 48%

D. 55%

E. 50%

Q8. A certified seed producer finds off-type plants in a field before flowering. The objective is to preserve varietal purity and prevent contamination. Which action is most appropriate:

A. Retain the plants if their yield potential appears high

B. Rogue out off-types at the appropriate stage and comply with applicable certification standards

C. Harvest off-types separately and mix their seed into the main lot

D. Apply additional fertiliser to make the plants resemble the desired variety

E. Delay inspection until after seed processing

Q9. A potato farmer repeatedly uses farm-saved tubers from a field with a history of virus infection. Plant vigour and yield decline over successive seasons. Which measure most directly addresses the planting-material problem:

A. Increase nitrogen fertiliser without changing planting material

B. Reduce seed-tuber size without checking health status

C. Plant the same tubers more densely

D. Use quality-assured, healthy seed tubers and follow appropriate disease-management practices

E. Harvest the crop earlier in every season

Q10. A tractor implement has a working width of 2.4 m, a forward speed of 6 km/h and field efficiency of 70%. If the cultivated area is 8.4 hectares, the approximate operating time is:

A. 5 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 7 hours

D. 8.33 hours

E. 10 hours

Q11. A farm machine costs ₹8 lakh, has a salvage value of ₹80,000 and an estimated useful life of 9 years. Using straight-line depreciation, what is its annual depreciation:

A. ₹72,000

B. ₹80,000

C. ₹88,000

D. ₹90,000

E. ₹96,000

Q12. A rainfed orchard is established on sloping land prone to runoff. Which combination is most likely to improve soil conservation while maintaining orchard productivity:

A. Keep the entire soil surface bare and cultivate down the slope

B. Direct runoff towards tree trunks

C. Remove all organic residues before the rainy season

D. Increase slope length by removing conservation structures

E. Maintain suitable vegetative cover and use contour-aligned conservation measures where appropriate

Q13. A mango orchard experiences heavy flowering but poor fruit set. Pollinator activity is low, and unsuitable weather occurs during flowering. Which management approach is most appropriate:

A. Assess flowering weather, pollination, cultivar compatibility and orchard management before selecting corrective measures

B. Apply nitrogen at very high rates during flowering

C. Assume fruit set is independent of pollination and weather

D. Remove all pollinators to prevent competition

E. Irrigate continuously regardless of soil moisture and drainage

Q14. A banana grower purchases tissue-culture plantlets. Some plants show uneven growth soon after transplanting. Which practice offers the best foundation for a uniform plantation:

A. Mix plantlets of unknown origin without inspection

B. Use quality-assured plantlets, harden them appropriately and manage planting and nutrition uniformly

C. Transplant unacclimatised plantlets directly into extreme field conditions

D. Select plantlets solely on the basis of leaf colour

E. Apply the same pesticide repeatedly without diagnosing the problem

Q15. A newborn calf receives an inadequate quantity of colostrum several hours after birth. Which is the principal concern:

A. Permanent elimination of the calf's need for protein

B. Guaranteed prevention of all respiratory infections

C. Reduced passive transfer of maternal immunoglobulins and increased risk of disease

D. Complete prevention of dehydration

E. Increased ability to synthesise maternal antibodies immediately

Q16. A dairy farmer records standing oestrus in a cow at 6 a.m. and follows the conventional AM–PM rule. Subject to veterinary advice and the farm's breeding protocol, the usual artificial-insemination timing is approximately:

A. Immediately after 6 a.m. in every case

B. Only after 48 hours

C. Seven days later

D. Around 6 p.m. the same day

E. At the next oestrus cycle

Q17. A fish farmer observes fish gasping at the surface before sunrise after several cloudy days in a heavily fertilised pond. Which explanation and immediate response are most appropriate:

A. Excess dissolved oxygen; increase fertiliser application

B. Low dissolved oxygen due to respiration and reduced photosynthetic oxygen production; initiate emergency aeration

C. High water transparency; increase stocking density immediately

D. Excess feed alone is always the only possible cause; continue feeding

E. Normal behaviour requiring no water-quality assessment

Q18. An extension worker finds that a few respected farmers have adopted a new water-saving practice and are influencing neighbouring farmers to try it. In the diffusion-of-innovations model, these influential farmers are most likely to belong to which category:

A. Laggards

B. Late majority

C. Non-adopters

D. Early majority in every case, irrespective of their adoption history

E. Early adopters

Q19. An FPO aggregates produce from its members but faces inconsistent quality, high transport costs and weak bargaining power. Which strategy is most likely to improve its market performance:

A. Introduce quality grading, coordinated aggregation, market intelligence and efficient logistics

B. Sell produce without sorting or quality assessment

C. Discourage members from sharing production information

D. Depend exclusively on one buyer without evaluating alternatives

E. Stop maintaining records of quantities and prices

Q20. Farmers connected to an electronic agricultural market platform expect identical prices for a commodity in all participating markets. Which statement best reflects the role and limitation of electronic market integration:

A. Electronic trading eliminates transport costs and quality differences

B. All markets must offer identical prices regardless of local demand

C. Electronic platforms guarantee a minimum price for every transaction

D. Better market access and price discovery may be facilitated, but price differences can persist because of quality, logistics, demand and supply conditions

E. Physical handling and quality assessment are never required

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✅ ANSWER KEY

Q1.D

Q2.B

Q3.A

Q4.D

Q5.B

Q6.C

Q7.E

Q8.B

Q9.D

Q10.D

Q11.B

Q12.E

Q13.A

Q14.B

Q15.C

Q16.D

Q17.B

Q18.E

Q19.A

Q20.D

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📚 ANSWERS & QUICK EXPLANATIONS

Q1. D — 2,22,222 planting positions

Area per plant = 0.45 × 0.20 = 0.09 m².

Population per hectare = 10,000 ÷ 0.09 ≈ 1,11,111.

For 2 hectares = 2,22,222 planting positions.

Q2. B — 125 kg SSP/ha

Remaining P₂O₅ requirement = 60 − 40 = 20 kg/ha.

SSP required = 20 ÷ 0.16 = 125 kg/ha.

Q3. A — Gypsum followed by appropriate leaching

Gypsum supplies calcium, which helps replace exchangeable sodium. Suitable drainage and leaching help remove displaced sodium. The gypsum requirement should be based on soil assessment.

Q4. D — Diagnose nodulation constraints

Effective biological nitrogen fixation depends on compatible rhizobia, viable inoculant, root health and suitable soil conditions. Soil acidity, nutrient deficiencies and other stresses can impair nodulation.

Q5. B — C₄ carbon-concentrating mechanism

Maize uses the C₄ pathway, which concentrates CO₂ around Rubisco and generally reduces photorespiration under warm, high-light conditions. It does not eliminate water stress.

Q6. C — Selection and successive self-pollination

Selection identifies desirable plants, while successive self-pollination increases homozygosity. Progeny evaluation across generations helps identify lines with the required performance and stability.

Q7. E — 50%

Apparent nutrient-recovery efficiency:

= [(Uptake in fertilised plot − Uptake in control) ÷ Nutrient applied] × 100

= [(105 − 65) ÷ 80] × 100

= 50%.

Q8. B — Timely roguing

Removing off-types before they contribute pollen or seed helps preserve varietal identity. Seed production must also comply with applicable isolation, inspection and certification requirements.

Q9. D — Healthy seed tubers

Viruses can accumulate and spread through vegetatively propagated potato tubers. Healthy, quality-assured seed tubers and appropriate disease-management practices help maintain crop vigour and yield.

Q10. D — 8.33 hours

Theoretical field capacity = Width × Speed ÷ 10.

= 2.4 × 6 ÷ 10 = 1.44 ha/hour.

Effective field capacity = 1.44 × 0.70 = 1.008 ha/hour.

Operating time = 8.4 ÷ 1.008 = 8.33 hours approximately.

Q11. B — ₹80,000/year

Annual depreciation = (Cost − Salvage value) ÷ Useful life.

= (₹8,00,000 − ₹80,000) ÷ 9

= ₹7,20,000 ÷ 9 = ₹80,000/year.

Q12. E — Vegetative cover and contour measures

Suitable ground cover reduces raindrop impact and runoff velocity. Contour-aligned conservation structures can further reduce soil loss when designed for local slope, soil and rainfall conditions.

Q13. A — Diagnose fruit-set limitations

Poor fruit set can result from unsuitable flowering weather, limited pollination, cultivar incompatibility, nutrient imbalance and other factors. Management should be based on the diagnosed cause.

Q14. B — Quality plantlets and appropriate establishment

Quality-assured tissue-culture plantlets, proper hardening and uniform field management support better establishment. Uneven growth should prompt checks for transplant shock, root health, water stress, nutrition and pests.

Q15. C — Inadequate passive immunity

Timely feeding of adequate, good-quality colostrum supports passive transfer of maternal immunoglobulins. Delayed or insufficient feeding increases the risk of failure of passive transfer.

Q16. D — Around 6 p.m. the same day

Under the conventional AM–PM rule, a cow first observed in standing oestrus in the morning is generally inseminated that evening. Actual timing should follow veterinary guidance and the farm's breeding protocol.

Q17. B — Low dissolved oxygen

At night, respiration continues while photosynthetic oxygen production stops. Several cloudy days can reduce daytime oxygen replenishment. Emergency aeration and water-quality assessment are appropriate responses.

Q18. E — Early adopters

Early adopters typically follow innovators and may influence other farmers because of their credibility and social connections. Classification depends on adoption behaviour, not merely influence.

Q19. A — Better aggregation and market coordination

Quality grading, coordinated aggregation, market information and efficient logistics can improve consistency and bargaining power. Results depend on governance, buyer access, scale and cost management.

Q20. D — Improved price discovery, not guaranteed price equality

Electronic agricultural markets can broaden market access and improve price discovery. Differences in quality, transport costs, local supply and demand can still result in different prices across locations.

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🎯 SELF-ASSESSMENT

🏆 36–40 marks: Excellent — strong professional knowledge

🥇 30–35 marks: Very good — refine weaker concepts

📘 22–29 marks: Good — revise weak areas

📌 Below 22 marks: Revisit fundamentals and practise again

SCORING: Award 2 marks for each correct answer. For a realistic exam-style assessment, apply a penalty of 0.50 marks for each incorrect answer. Unattempted questions receive zero.

CHALLENGE: Complete all 20 questions in 15 minutes. Review incorrect answers and identify your three weakest topics.

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Disclaimer: Independent educational practice material. This is not an official IBPS paper or a prediction of actual examination difficulty.