INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR) - IBPS PO MAINS INTELLIGENCE MOCK

🔥 PLATINUM SERIES 2.0 | VOL. 181

📅 27 SEPTEMBER 2026 | SUNDAY

🎯 TARGET EXAMS

IBPS PO | SBI PO | IBPS RRB | RBI | NABARD

⚡ 20 QUESTIONS | 20 MARKS | 15–18 MINUTES

❌ NEGATIVE MARKING: 0.25 MARK FOR EACH WRONG ANSWER

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🔥 TODAY'S INTELLIGENCE FOCUS

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🏦 Deposit & Credit Management

💧 Liquidity & ALM

🌾 Priority Sector Lending

🏭 MSME & Credit Risk

⚖️ Recovery & IBC

🔐 KYC / CKYCR / AML

📝 Customer Service & Nomination

💳 Digital Payments & Cyber Fraud

📊 Credit Information

🛡️ Operational Risk & Internal Controls

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🔥 SECTION A — INTELLIGENCE TEST

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Q1. A bank wants to improve the stability and quality of its retail deposit franchise. Which strategy is most directly aligned with this objective:

A. Increase dependence on short-term market borrowings

B. Replace savings deposits with bulk deposits

C. Restrict digital transactions to reduce operating costs

D. Increase deposit rates uniformly across all products

E. Deepen transaction-based relationships and customer engagement

Q2. A bank has eligible HQLA of ₹360 crore and adjusted net cash outflows of ₹300 crore for the prescribed stress period. Its LCR is:

A. 83.33%

B. 120%

C. 60%

D. 160%

E. 100%

Q3. A bank funds a large portfolio of long-term assets substantially through short-term and unstable sources. Which risk is most directly indicated:

A. Settlement risk

B. Reputation risk

C. Structural liquidity and funding risk

D. Documentation risk

E. Legal risk

Q4. A loan is proposed for classification under Priority Sector Lending solely because the loan amount is small. Which principle should the credit officer apply:

A. Every small loan automatically qualifies as PSL

B. Collateral value alone determines PSL classification

C. Interest rate alone determines PSL classification

D. Eligibility depends on the applicable PSL category and prescribed conditions

E. Current-account maintenance determines PSL classification

Q5. An eligible MSME loan is covered by a credit-guarantee scheme and subsequently defaults. Which statement is most appropriate:

A. The bank can stop monitoring the account after sanction

B. The guarantee eliminates the need for credit appraisal

C. The entire outstanding amount is automatically recovered from the guarantor

D. The loan becomes risk-free immediately after guarantee approval

E. Claim settlement is subject to the applicable scheme's eligibility, coverage and claim conditions

Q6. A secured loan account has become irregular and the bank proposes enforcement of the security interest. What should primarily precede such action:

A. Verification of the applicable legal, security and procedural requirements

B. Closure of all other accounts of the borrower

C. Completion of exactly twelve months of default

D. Conversion of the loan into equity

E. Approval from every creditor of the borrower

Q7. A corporate debtor enters insolvency resolution and a viable resolution plan proposes restructuring of the business and creditor claims. Which statement best reflects the process:

A. Default automatically requires immediate liquidation

B. The process seeks resolution and value maximisation in accordance with the Code

C. Every creditor must receive 100% of its admitted claim

D. All creditor participation ends once CIRP begins

E. Every resolution plan must convert debt into equity

Q8. A company customer has several layers of ownership involving different entities. Which KYC requirement becomes particularly important:

A. Identifying only the authorised signatory

B. Obtaining only the registered office address

C. Verifying only annual turnover

D. Identifying the beneficial owner(s) as required under applicable KYC norms

E. Obtaining only the latest audited balance sheet

Q9. A customer's normal business involves routine domestic trade, but the account suddenly records rapid transfers involving unrelated parties followed by unusual withdrawals. What is the most appropriate response:

A. Ignore the activity because individual transactions are small

B. Close the account immediately without examination

C. Assess the activity against the customer's profile and apply risk-based monitoring and escalation where warranted

D. Inform the customer that money laundering has been conclusively established

E. Treat the transactions as normal because sufficient balance was available

Q10. A depositor dies leaving a valid nomination in the deposit account. Which statement best describes the operational purpose of nomination:

A. It finally determines succession in every legal circumstance

B. It automatically makes the nominee a joint holder

C. It extinguishes all claims of legal heirs

D. It facilitates settlement/payment by the bank subject to applicable law and procedure

E. It makes the nominee personally liable for all liabilities of the deceased

Q11. A branch discovers that transactions were processed using maker credentials without independent checker verification. No financial loss has yet occurred. What does this primarily indicate:

A. A control weakness requiring corrective action

B. Improved operational efficiency

C. A liquidity-management strategy

D. A customer-service initiative

E. A normal exception without control significance

Q12. Under the Cheque Truncation System, the physical cheque is substantially replaced by electronic transmission of its image and relevant data. What is the principal operational benefit:

A. Automatic guarantee of payment

B. Faster clearing with reduced physical movement and handling-related risk

C. Elimination of cheque-return risk

D. Conversion of every cheque into an electronic fund transfer

E. Elimination of authentication requirements

Q13. A customer asks why an RTGS transaction is described as involving "gross settlement." Which explanation is correct:

A. Transactions are accumulated and settled at the end of the day

B. Only international transactions are settled through RTGS

C. Eligible transactions are settled individually rather than being netted against other transactions

D. RTGS transactions are settled only after the NEFT cycle

E. RTGS is primarily a physical cheque-clearing mechanism

Q14. A customer receives a call claiming that an unauthorised UPI payment will be reversed if the customer shares an OTP and enters the UPI PIN. What is the safest response:

A. Share the OTP but never the PIN

B. Enter the PIN after confirming the caller's identity

C. Enter the PIN if the caller knows recent transaction details

D. Refuse to disclose credentials and contact the bank through an authorised channel

E. Follow the caller's instructions if the amount is small

Q15. A merchant platform stores a token representing a customer's card instead of storing the actual card number for permitted transactions. Which technology is involved:

A. Securitisation

B. Card tokenisation

C. Credit scoring

D. Cheque truncation

E. Loan syndication

Q16. Under the Account Aggregator framework, a customer provides consent for specified financial information to be shared with an authorised financial information user. Which principle is central:

A. The Account Aggregator obtains permanent ownership of the customer's data

B. All participating institutions receive unrestricted access to the customer's financial history

C. Consent is required only when the first account is opened

D. Data sharing is consent-based and limited to the permitted information flow

E. The customer permanently loses control once information is shared

Q17. A bank discovers that an overdue amount has been incorrectly reported to a Credit Information Company. What should form the immediate control response:

A. Verify the underlying records and initiate correction through the prescribed process

B. Wait until the next annual reporting cycle

C. Close the customer's loan account

D. Classify the customer as a wilful defaulter

E. Ask the customer to approach another lender

Q18. A bank has fixed-rate assets and liabilities that reprice at different speeds. Market interest rates change sharply. Which framework should management primarily use to assess the impact:

A. Nomination management

B. Credit information management

C. ALM and interest-rate-risk analysis based on repricing characteristics

D. Locker management

E. Cheque-clearing management

Q19. A branch repeatedly bypasses dual-control procedures to complete transactions faster. No material financial loss has yet occurred. What is the most appropriate management response:

A. Accept the practice if customer complaints are absent

B. Reward the branch for faster processing

C. Ignore the issue until an actual loss occurs

D. Remove supervisory controls to improve efficiency

E. Identify the root cause and restore effective control discipline

Q20. A digital payment fails, but the customer's account is debited. What should the bank's customer-protection process primarily ensure:

A. The customer immediately makes a second payment

B. The customer contacts the beneficiary personally

C. The complaint is closed because the transaction status is "failed"

D. The transaction is tracked and resolved/reversed within the applicable framework and prescribed timeline

E. The bank waits until a legal notice is received

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🗝️ ANSWER KEY

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Q1.E

Q2.B

Q3.C

Q4.D

Q5.E

Q6.A

Q7.B

Q8.D

Q9.C

Q10.D

Q11.A

Q12.B

Q13.C

Q14.D

Q15.B

Q16.D

Q17.A

Q18.C

Q19.E

Q20.D

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🧠 PO MAINS SMART APPROACH

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🎯 1. IDENTIFY THE TESTED CONCEPT

Fact → Concept → Application → Risk → Control.

🎯 2. WATCH THE TRIGGER WORD

PRIMARILY • MOST APPROPRIATE • DIRECTLY • BEST DESCRIBES • SUBJECT TO.

🎯 3. WHEN TWO OPTIONS LOOK CORRECT

Select the option that answers the specific question most precisely.

🎯 4. CONNECT STATIC + CURRENT BANKING

RBI / Regulatory Development

↓

Banking Concept

↓

Practical Application

↓

Possible Exam Question

🎯 5. USE NEGATIVE MARKING INTELLIGENTLY

KNOWN → ATTEMPT

UNCERTAIN → ELIMINATE

TWO OPTIONS → RE-READ

NO BASIS → MOVE ON

🎯 6. ANALYSE EVERY ERROR

Concept gap • Misread question • Careless error • Two-option confusion • Unnecessary guess.

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🏆 5-MINUTE POST-MOCK ANALYSIS

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📌 SCORE: ____ / 20

📌 WRONG: ____

📌 UNATTEMPTED: ____

📌 CONCEPTUAL ERRORS: ____

📌 CARELESS ERRORS: ____

📌 TWO-OPTION CONFUSIONS: ____

🎯 Identify your TOP 2 weak areas and revise them immediately.

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📊 SCORE GUIDE

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🔥 18–20 → EXCELLENT COMMAND

🟢 16–17 → STRONG PERFORMANCE

🟡 13–15 → GOOD — REVISE WEAK AREAS

🟠 10–12 → CONCEPT REVISION REQUIRED

🔴 BELOW 10 → STRENGTHEN CORE CONCEPTS

🎯 IBR PRACTICE TARGET: 18+

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🚀 JOIN THE IBR INTELLIGENCE ECOSYSTEM

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📢 IBR DAILY PRACTICE CHALLENGE

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🎯 Attempt today's mock within 15–18 minutes.

📝 Record your score.

🔍 Identify your weakest two concepts.

📚 Revise them today.

🔥 Return tomorrow for the next IBR Intelligence Mock.

ONE MOCK A DAY.

🏦 THAT IS THE IBR INTELLIGENCE APPROACH.

🎯 READ SMART • THINK BANKING • ANSWER INTELLIGENTLY

— INDIAN BANKING RADAR (IBR)